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Download CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Exam Dumps

NEW QUESTION 22
A managed service provider is designing a log aggregation service for customers who no longer want to manage an internal SIEM infrastructure. The provider expects that customers will send all types of logs to them, and that log files could contain very sensitive entries. Customers have indicated they want on- premises and cloud-based infrastructure logs to be stored in this new service. An engineer, who is designing the new service, is deciding how to segment customers.
Which of the following is the BEST statement for the engineer to take into consideration?

• A. The most secure design approach would be to give customers on-premises appliances, install agents on endpoints, and then remotely manage the service via a VPN.
• B. Due to the likelihood of large log volumes, the service provider should use a multi-tenancy model for the data storage tier, enable data deduplication for storage cost efficiencies, and encrypt data at rest.
• C. The managed service provider should outsource security of the platform to an existing cloud company.
  This will allow the new log service to be launched faster and with well-tested security controls.
• D. Single-tenancy is often more expensive and has less efficient resource utilization. Multi-tenancy may increase the risk of cross-customer exposure in the event of service vulnerabilities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 23
During a security assessment, an organization is advised of inadequate control over network segmentation. The assessor explains that the organization's reliance on VLANs to segment traffic is insufficient to provide segmentation based on regulatory standards.
Which of the following should the organization consider implementing along with VLANs to provide a greater level of segmentation?

• A. Elastic load balancing
• B. Network virtualization
• C. Spanning tree protocol
• D. Air gaps
• E. Access control lists

Answer: E

Explanation:
While the VLANs segment the networks the ACLs provide authority over the actual traffic passing between.

NEW QUESTION 24
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically destroyed. Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?

• A. Deduplication
• B. E-waste
• C. Sovereignty
• D. Remanence

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25
A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application. The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select TWO).

• A. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV
• B. Use AES in Counter mode
• C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation
• D. Use AES with cipher text padding
• E. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode
• F. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between segments of the encrypted message.
Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce.
AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by encrypting successive values of a "counter". The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.
Incorrect Answers:
A: AES in Electronic Codebook mode cannot be used to encrypt streaming video. You would need a stream cipher such as RC4 or AES in Counter Mode.
B: RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode cannot be used to encrypt streaming video. You would need a stream cipher such as RC4 (not in Cipher Block Chaining mode) or AES in Counter Mode.
C: You cannot use fixed IV generation for RC4 when encrypting streaming video.
D: AES with cipher text padding cannot be used to encrypt streaming video. You would need a stream cipher such as RC4 or AES in Counter Mode.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Initialization_vector

NEW QUESTION 26
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST important?

• A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
• B. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
• C. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
• D. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Insecure direct object references are used to access data. CSRF attacks the functions of a web site which could access data. A Smurf attack is used to take down a system.
A direct object reference is likely to occur when a developer exposes a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file, directory, or database key without any validation mechanism which will allow attackers to manipulate these references to access unauthorized data.
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that occurs when a malicious Web site, email, blog, instant message, or program causes a user's Web browser to perform an unwanted action on a trusted site for which the user is currently authenticated. The impact of a successful cross-site request forgery attack is limited to the capabilities exposed by the vulnerable application. For example, this attack could result in a transfer of funds, changing a password, or purchasing an item in the user's context. In effect, CSRF attacks are used by an attacker to make a target system perform a function (funds Transfer, form submission etc.) via the target's browser without knowledge of the target user, at least until the unauthorized function has been committed.
A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees.
Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Application DoS is an attack designed to affect the availability of an application. Buffer overflow is used to obtain information. Therefore, the order of importance in this answer is incorrect.
C: Resource exhaustion is an attack designed to affect the availability of a system. Privilege escalation is used to obtain information. Therefore, the order of importance in this answer is incorrect.
D: The options in the other answers (Insecure direct object references, privilege escalation, SQL injection) are more of a threat to data confidentiality than the options in this answer.
References:
http://www.tutorialspoint.com/security_testing/insecure_direct_object_reference.htm
https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-Site_Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/S/smurf.html

NEW QUESTION 27
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